NURS 6550 MIDTERM EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS.
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
The AGACNP is caring for a patient who is quite ill and has developed, among other things, a large right sided pleural effusion. Thoracentesis is sent for pleural fluid analysis. While evaluating the fluid analysis, the AGACNP knows that a fluid identified as a(n) is the least worrisome type.
Response Feedback:
“A” is the correct answer. A transudate is essentially just water and can occur as a consequence of increased hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary vessels. It typically implies that the some condition has produced an imbalance in colloid-hydrostatic pressures, such as CHF or hypoalbuminemia. While it can represent a serious problem, it may also represent a transient imbalance. Conversely, “B” is not correct as an exudate has more protein in it and implies a condition characterized by protein leaking from vessels, such as a malignancy or some serious systemic stressor. “C” is not correct—a chyliform effusion is characterized by fat and indicates a pathology causing massive triglyceride degradation. “D” is not correct as a hemorrhagic effusion is blood and typically means traumatic injury.
Question 2
1 out of 1 points
Differentiating vertigo from near-syncope and ataxia is one of the goals of history-taking when a patient presents as “dizzy.” The AGACP knows that vertigo is the problem when the patient reports the primary symptom as:
Response Feedback:
“A” is the correct answer. Dizzy is a layperson’s term and can mean many different things to patients and health care providers. When the patient identifies the primary symptom as a sense of spinning this supports vertigo, which is usually an inner ear problem. This versus ataxia which is neurologic or near-syncope which may be cardiac, neurological, or neurocardiogenic. “B” is not correct—this may occur with vertigo, but when it is the primary symptom it is most likely ataxia and neurological causes should be considered. “C” is not correct as coincident nausea is not specific and can occur with any of these complaints. “D” is not correct as it is also not specific; while ataxia cannot occur when supine near-syncope can.
Question 3
1 out of 1 points
Mr. Banks has been admitted for surgical resection of a metastatic tumor, during surgery it is discovered that he has widespread, diffuse metastasis throughout the abdomen.
Surgery is no longer an option, and his oncologist says that chemotherapy is unlikely to produce any meaningful benefit. Mr. Banks is concerned that his sons will not support a transfer to comfort care. The AGACNP advises that he:
Response Feedback:
“B” is the correct answer. If there is any concern about disagreement among family members, or any concern at all that a patient’s wishes will not be carried out, the best action is to ensure that there is a clearly defined legally executed document. “A” is not correct. Living wills are not legally enforceable documents and when dissention arises among family members they may not be carried out. “C” is not correct – while the patient should arrange for his care as long as he is capable of doing so, if questions arise at such a time that he is not capable of answering his next of kin will need to do so. “D” is not correct — identifying the proxy is not enough without assigning legal rights and responsibilities. While “A,” “C,” and “D” should all be done and will support his care, the only way to ensure that one’s wishes are carried out is to ensure that a legally enforceable direction is in place.
Question 4
Mr. Wilkerson is a 77-year-old male who is being evaluated and treated for his cardiogenic pain. His vital signs are as follows: Temperature of 99.1° F, pulse of 100 bpm, respirations of 22 bpm, and blood pressure of 168/100 mm Hg. A 12-lead ECG
1 out of 1 points
reveals deep ST segment depression in leads V3-V6. The AGACNP recognizes which of the following as a contraindication to rTPA therapy?
Response Feedback:
“D” is the correct answer. rTPA is not indicated in patients with ST segment depression; this is not a ST elevation MI. “A” is not correct as age > 80 is a relative contraindication. “B” is not correct as a temperature of 99.1° F is an expected response to myocardial necrosis, and “C” is not correct—the blood pressure is not prohibitive until > 180/110 mm hg.
Question 5
A 71-year-old patient is recovering from a particularly severe exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. He has been in the hospital for almost two weeks and was on mechanical ventilation for 7 days. While discussing his discharge plan he tells
1 out of 1 points
you that he is really going to quit smoking this time. He acknowledges that he has been “sneaking” cigarettes in the hospital for two days, but he has established a timeline to decrease the number of cigarettes daily. According to his plan his last cigarette will be the last day of the month. This patient’s behavior is consistent with which stage of the Transtheoretical Model of Change?
Response Feedback:
“C” is the correct answer. The Transtheoretical model of change is characterized by 5 stages. “A” is when the patient has no intention to make a change. “B” is when the patient is intending to make a change in the next 6 months. “C” is when the patient is ready to take action or has already taken some action, as this patient has in establishing his plan to quit by the end of the month. “D” is the overt action that attains a criterion sufficient to reduce disease risk—in this patient the action stage would be characterized by actual smoking cessation. The final phase, not presented in the answer choices here, is maintenance.
Question 6
Certain subgroups of the elderly population are at an increased risk for rapid
1 out of 1 points
deterioration and long-term care placement. Which of the following is not considered a high risk factor for long term care placement?
Response Feedback:
“A” is the correct answer; men are at higher risk for long-term care placement than women. In addition to male gender, other risk factors include age over 80, living alone, bowel or bladder incontinence, history of falls, dysfunctional coping, and intellectual impairment.
Question 7
P.M. is a 71-year-old gay male patient who presents as an outpatient for evaluation of
1 out of 1 points
increasing shortness of breath. The diagnostic evaluation ultimately supports a diagnosis of community acquired pneumonia. The AGACNP appreciates right middle lobe consolidation on chest radiography. Pending sputum cultures, empiric antibiotic therapy must be initiated to cover which organism?
Response Feedback:
“D” is the correct answer. This patient presents from the outpatient population where the most common cause of pneumonia
Question 8
is Streptococcus pneumoniae, and is the primary treatment target for any patient being treated empirically. “A” is not correct—while the patient’s sexual orientation is offered in the provided history, there is no indication that he has HIV/AIDS or any other condition characterized by immunosuppression that would increase his risk for this organism. “B” is not correct, as this organism is not typically seen in the outpatient population without specific risk, e.g. immunosuppression or chronic ventilator therapy. “C” is not the correct answer as this organism is not likely absent specific risk such as instrumentation or known colonization.
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following is the greatest risk factor for vascular dementia?
Response Feedback:
“B” is the correct answer. Vascular dementia is a consequence of vascular disease, and is more likely to occur in patients with risk factors for target organ damage, such as hypertension, dyslipidemia, and diabetes. “A” is not a distinct risk factor for vascular dementia; it is a risk for Alzheimer’s dementia. “C” likewise increases risk for Parkinson’s dementia, but does not present a risk for vascular dementia. “D” is not a risk factor for vascular dementia. Although there may be some familial risk for certain vascular diseases that may lead to vascular dementia, there is no clear familial tendency for this type of dementia.
Question 9
J.R. is a 55-year-old male who presents for a commercial driver’s license physical
1 out of 1 points
examination with a blood pressure of 170/102 mm Hg. He has no medical history and is without complaint. Which of the following findings constitutes hypertensive urgency?
Response Feedback:
“A” is the correct answer. According to the Joint National Committee (JNC) report, hypertensive urgency is described as hypertension in the setting of progressive target organ damage, such as renal involvement with protein leaking, left ventricular hypertrophy, or retinal changes. “A” is not correct—the headache may or may not be relevant, but because there are many non- hypertension causes, a headache alone does not constitute target organ damage. “C” is not correct—it may indicate carotid plaque, but this is not a consequence of hypertension. “D” is not correct as a 1+ palpable pulse may be a normal finding–it must be taken in the
context of the rest of the examination.
